My wife and I switched to an 'open cuckold' lifestyle back in 2008 on the back of inidelities causing her guilt. No problems with that -it seemed a natural progression.
But as more facts have slowly emerged about those previous inidelities, nearly 30 years on I find myself wondering about our first born.
A few facts, (let's call mt wife J and me G):
June 1986 – contraception dropped, 'let's make a baby'
October 1986 – G gets a virus
November 1986 – Baby not happening - G referred for sperm count: Result = Very Low
April 1987 – second opinion sought
July 31 1987 – Sperm Count looking a bit more like normal, virus may have had an affect, J referred for investigation (long waiting list)
December 18 – J begins affair with R
R is very virile, has two kids and his wife is pregnant with third
January 5th onwards, J's sex with R gathers pace - moves from back of car to his house in three weeks
Mid November - Baby born, two weeks overdue
Likely time of conception - January 25
J insists R used rubbers but their sex was frequent and intense?
What concerns me here is that I remember clearly how desperate we were for a baby, J especially. Could she have assumed my sperm count was never going to be enough and sort a real life proven donor? Or could R been made aware of J's desparation (circumstances would suggest a real possibility) and offered to help... I have since learnt in the cuck world that many men get a thrill from impregnating other men's wives?
I now feel I need to know if I am indeed the father, but I have no intention of messing up my daughter's mind.
I am poised to order a DNA testing kit for my own peace of mind... because I feel I knowing is better than not knowing. Am I right?
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